Why did Jesus get baptized in John's baptism, when his baptism was a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sin. Answer: "to fufill all righteousness". Here's my question, What righteousness was Jesus fufilling when he was baptized by John?
There were certain times that every Jewish male was immersed, whether he had actually committed a sin or not. It is possible, then, that he was saying he needed to be immersed by John in order to fulfill the requirements of the Law. Without meeting all the requirements of the Law, being a Jew, he could not say he was without sin. So perhaps he is saying he does not need to be immersed because of sin committed, but in order to keep from committing a sin. The righteousness he had to complete (fulfill) was the righteousness of keeping the Law perfectly.